From where [is it derived that] the recitation of [the passage] of the first-fruits [must be in Hebrew]? [With respect to the passage of the first-fruits it is stated:] Then you shall speak up and say before HASHEM, your God (Deut. 26:5), and over there it states: and the Levites shall speak up and say (Deut. 27:14). Just as the speaking up stated over there [means] in the Holy Tongue, here too [it means] in the Holy Tongue.

From where [is it derived that] chalitzah [must be in Hebrew]? [With respect to chalitzah it is stated:] And she shall speak up and say (Deut. 25:9), and over there it states: And the Leviim shall speak up and say (Deut. 2:14). Just as the speaking up over there means in the Holy Tongue, here too [it means] in the Holy Tongue.  R’ Yehudah says: And she shall speak up and say, “So ...” —- [this] implies that she must say it in this [exact] language.